I don’t think that really answers my question. Saying “there is always a recession after an inversion” is incredibly vague. The only scenario that wouldn’t happen is if we somehow fixed the economy perfectly & never had a recession every again ever. But if a recession happens 100 years after an inversion, it’s farfetched to say the inversion predicted it. Where’s the line?
I don’t think that really answers my question. Saying “there is always a recession after an inversion” is incredibly vague. The only scenario that wouldn’t happen is if we somehow fixed the economy perfectly & never had a recession every again ever. But if a recession happens 100 years after an inversion, it’s farfetched to say the inversion predicted it. Where’s the line?